Only by DIVIDING Paul's word do we find the beginning of the body of Christ for today. It was brought into being in Acts 28.
Colossians 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
and
Colossians 2:16-17 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.
When God created the body spoken of in Col. there are elements that MUST be put into practice. In Col. 2 God describes the very COMPLETENESS that they find in Christ's body.
Colossians 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:
One of the established FACTS is that the handwriting of ordinances can be said to have been BLOTTED OUT. On the basis of Col. 2 you will also find, because of this fact, that you are to NOT OBSERVE ANY religious ordinances. This is SO because these saints are COMPLETE "in him":
Colossians 2:20-22 Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances, (Touch not; taste not; handle not; Which all are to perish with the using;) after the commandments and doctrines of men?
Most people mistakenly make the handwriting of ordinances to be the law. That is impossible. It was not ever called that. This handwriting of ordinances took place in Acts 15 at the meeting of Peter, James and Paul:
Acts 15:19-20 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God: But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood.
Acts 15:21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
Acts 15:22 Then pleased it the apostles and elders, with the whole church, to send chosen men of their own company to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas; namely, Judas surnamed Barsabas, and Silas, chief men among the brethren:
Acts 15:23 And they wrote letters by them after this manner; The apostles and elders and brethren send greeting unto the brethren which are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia:
Make no mistake about it. How is it possible that the handwriting of ordinances could be preached as being blotted out for the Body PRIOR to Acts 15 IF it was not even given untill Acts 15? Acts 15 is where they received the ordinances. Paul did as was requested and delievered these ordinances. If you study out I.Cor. you will find out that the ordinances are alluded to. That is why Paul praised them, right after talking about meat & drink in:
1 Corinthians 10:31 Whether therefore ye eat, or drink, or whatsoever ye do, do all to the glory of God.
He will move on to say:
1 Corinthians 11:1-2 Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ. Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you.
Now, if you DID follow Paul as a Corinthian you had to observe the handwriting of ordinances that Paul delivered to you. This handwriting of ordinances made it so that the Jew and Gentile were not reconcilled to eachother COMPLETELY. A Gentile could be saved prior to Acts 28, we all know that. A Jew and a Gentile could be reconcilled to GOD before Acts 28, but as far as relations go they could not be reconcilled to EACH OTHER. They were seperated BY those ordinances. There was no difference in that they were purified by faith, but they had their racial identities IN TACT during the Acts period. IN CHRIST nobody had the ADVANTAGE, but that does not mean that there were no observable differences. THIS WILL NOT DO FOR THE BODY OF COL. This can also be seen in Acts 21.
Acts 21:19 And when he had saluted them, he declared particularly what things God had wrought among the Gentiles by his ministry.
Acts 21:20-21 And when they heard it, they glorified the Lord, and said unto him, Thou seest, brother, how many thousands of Jews there are which believe; and they are all zealous of the law: And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
Acts 21:22-23 What is it therefore? the multitude must needs come together: for they will hear that thou art come. Do therefore this that we say to thee: We have four men which have a vow on them;
Acts 21:24-25 Them take, and purify thyself with them, and be at charges with them, that they may shave their heads: and all may know that those things, whereof they were informed concerning thee, are nothing; but that thou thyself also walkest orderly, and keepest the law. As touching the Gentiles which believe, we have written and concluded that they observe no such thing, save only that they keep themselves from things offered to idols, and from blood, and from strangled, and from fornication.
Acts 21:26 Then Paul took the men, and the next day purifying himself with them entered into the temple, to signify the accomplishment of the days of purification, until that an offering should be offered for every one of them.
The minute Paul did this, he confirmed 2 things.
1. That he was NOT telling believing Jews that live among Gentiles to forsake the law of Moses with its ordinances, even as HE had not given up the law.
(NOTE: It did NOT say that it was only in ref. to Jews that PETER had won to Christ...based on CONTEXT it does point to what PAUL is doing to believing Jews)
2. That there was still a DISPENSATIONAL seperation between the Jew and the Gentile, even if there was no seperation of the Gentile FROM GOD.
(NOTE: Never in Paul's Early Epistles of 1 & 2 Thess., 1 & 2 Cor., Gal., Heb., or Romans do you EVER find ANY hint that the JEW was to EVER give up the law according to Paul)
These 2 facts prove that it has to be a different dispensation than the one spoken of in Paul's Latter Epistles of Eph., Phil., Col., Philemon, 1 Timothy, Titus, and 2 Timothy. The rules CHANGED!
Paul's Latter writings are all about how we should all (JEW and Gentile) forsake the law because it was a shadow of THINGS TO COME, but the body was OF CHRIST.
Colossians 2:17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.
Folks, this is NOT progressive revelation...it is a FLAT CONTRADICTION!
Compare this:
1 Corinthians 7:18-20 Is any man called being circumcised? let him not become uncircumcised. Is any called in uncircumcision? let him not be circumcised. Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God. Let every man abide in the same calling wherein he was called.
vs.
Colossians 2:20-22 Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances, (Touch not; taste not; handle not; Which all are to perish with the using;) after the commandments and doctrines of men?
In one case the saints were told to abide in the same calling where they were called-CIRCUMCISION or uncircumcision.
In the OTHER case, any type of ordinance was lumped in with the doctrines of MEN.
The problem with "less extreme" forms of dispensationalism is that they say that the BODY of Col. has the handwriting of ordinances BLOTTED OUT before Acts 15 when there was NO ORDINANCES UNTILL ACTS 15 TO BE BLOTTED OUT in the first place. The saints of the Acts period COULD BE JUDGED (and rightly so) for not observing ordinances. The saints after Acts 28:28 COULD NOT. Things that differ are never equal.
As an Acts 28er, I know for a fact that all of my fellowship know based upon the testimony of Acts 28:28 that the dispensational boundary line for today lies THERE. We don't need an Acts 29 to see when the New Man began. Up to Acts 28 we know that Paul never did anything that caused the Jews to worry that God would turn away from their program. But at Acts 28 there was a BREAK.
Perhaps this will illustrate:
Acts 13:26 Men and brethren, children of the stock of Abraham, and whosoever among you feareth God, to you is the word of this salvation sent.
And all throughout the book of Acts it is TO THAT GROUP that the word of salvation of sent...but in Acts 28 Israel drops out and now Paul would go to any ungodly GENTILE.
Acts 28:28 Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.
Don't listen to rumors, come check out the source. If you are opposed to Acts 28 dispensationalism or just happy with where you are at, I don't expect this to change you. BUT, if you are interested in more than just the traditional "party line" explanations then why not consider:
[url]www.bibleunderstanding.com[/url]
Grace and Peace,
Mike Holt [/QUOTE]
Many people that criticize the Acts 28 dispensational position do so to their own peril.
Colossians 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
and
Colossians 2:16-17 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.
When God created the body spoken of in Col. there are elements that MUST be put into practice and MUST be present. In Col. 2 God describes the very COMPLETENESS that they find in Christ's body.
Colossians 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:
One of the established FACTS is that the handwriting of ordinances can be said to have been BLOTTED OUT. On the basis of Col. 2 you will also find, because of this fact, that you are to NOT OBSERVE ANY religious ordinances. This is SO because these saints are COMPLETE "in him":
Colossians 2:20-22 Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances, (Touch not; taste not; handle not; Which all are to perish with the using;) after the commandments and doctrines of men?
Most people mistakenly make the handwriting of ordinances to be the law. That is impossible. It was not ever called that. This handwriting of ordinances took place in Acts 15 at the meeting of Peter, James and Paul:
Acts 15:19-20 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God: But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood.
Acts 15:21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
Acts 15:22 Then pleased it the apostles and elders, with the whole church, to send chosen men of their own company to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas; namely, Judas surnamed Barsabas, and Silas, chief men among the brethren:
Acts 15:23 And they wrote letters by them after this manner; The apostles and elders and brethren send greeting unto the brethren which are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia:
Make no mistake about it. How is it possible that the handwriting of ordinances could be preached as being blotted out for the Body PRIOR to Acts 15 IF it was not even given untill Acts 15? Acts 15 is where they received the ordinances. Paul did as was requested and delievered these ordinances. If you study out I.Cor. you will find out that the ordinances are alluded to. That is why Paul praised them, right after talking about meat & drink in:
1 Corinthians 10:31 Whether therefore ye eat, or drink, or whatsoever ye do, do all to the glory of God.
He will move on to say:
1 Corinthians 11:1-2 Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ. Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you.
Now, if you DID follow Paul as a Corinthian you had to observe the handwriting of ordinances that Paul delivered to you. This handwriting of ordinances made it so that the Jew and Gentile were not reconcilled to eachother COMPLETELY. A Gentile could be saved prior to Acts 28, we all know that. A Jew and a Gentile could be reconcilled to GOD before Acts 28, but as far as relations go they could not be reconcilled to EACH OTHER. They were seperated BY those ordinances. There was no difference in that they were purified by faith, but they had their racial identities IN TACT during the Acts period. IN CHRIST nobody had the ADVANTAGE, but that does not mean that there were no observable differences. THIS WILL NOT DO FOR THE BODY OF COL. This can also be seen in Acts 21.
Acts 21:19 And when he had saluted them, he declared particularly what things God had wrought among the Gentiles by his ministry.
Acts 21:20-21 And when they heard it, they glorified the Lord, and said unto him, Thou seest, brother, how many thousands of Jews there are which believe; and they are all zealous of the law: And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
Acts 21:22-23 What is it therefore? the multitude must needs come together: for they will hear that thou art come. Do therefore this that we say to thee: We have four men which have a vow on them;
Acts 21:24-25 Them take, and purify thyself with them, and be at charges with them, that they may shave their heads: and all may know that those things, whereof they were informed concerning thee, are nothing; but that thou thyself also walkest orderly, and keepest the law. As touching the Gentiles which believe, we have written and concluded that they observe no such thing, save only that they keep themselves from things offered to idols, and from blood, and from strangled, and from fornication.
Acts 21:26 Then Paul took the men, and the next day purifying himself with them entered into the temple, to signify the accomplishment of the days of purification, until that an offering should be offered for every one of them.
The minute Paul did this, he confirmed 2 things.
1. That he was NOT telling believing Jews that live among Gentiles to forsake the law of Moses with its ordinances, even as HE had not given up the law.
(NOTE: It did NOT say that it was only in ref. to Jews that PETER had won to Christ...based on CONTEXT it does point to what PAUL is doing to believing Jews)
2. That there was still a DISPENSATIONAL seperation between the Jew and the Gentile, even if there was no seperation of the Gentile FROM GOD.
(NOTE: Never in Paul's Early Epistles of 1 & 2 Thess., 1 & 2 Cor., Gal., Heb., or Romans do you EVER find ANY hint that the JEW was to EVER give up the law according to Paul)
These 2 facts prove that it has to be a different dispensation than the one spoken of in Paul's Latter Epistles of Eph., Phil., Col., Philemon, 1 Timothy, Titus, and 2 Timothy. The rules CHANGED!
Paul's Latter writings are all about how we should all (JEW and Gentile) forsake the law because it was a shadow of THINGS TO COME, but the body was OF CHRIST.
Colossians 2:17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.
Folks, this is NOT progressive revelation...it is a FLAT CONTRADICTION!
Compare this:
1 Corinthians 7:18-20 Is any man called being circumcised? let him not become uncircumcised. Is any called in uncircumcision? let him not be circumcised. Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God. Let every man abide in the same calling wherein he was called.
vs.
Colossians 2:20-22 Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances, (Touch not; taste not; handle not; Which all are to perish with the using;) after the commandments and doctrines of men?
In one case the saints were told to abide in the same calling where they were called-CIRCUMCISION or uncircumcision.
In the OTHER case, any type of ordinance was lumped in with the doctrines of MEN.
The problem with "less extreme" forms of dispensationalism is that they say that the BODY of Col. has the handwriting of ordinances BLOTTED OUT before Acts 15 when there was NO ORDINANCES UNTILL ACTS 15 TO BE BLOTTED OUT in the first place. The saints of the Acts period COULD BE JUDGED (and rightly so) for not observing ordinances. The saints after Acts 28:28 COULD NOT. Things that differ are never equal.
As an Acts 28er, I know for a fact that all of my fellowship know based upon the testimony of Acts 28:28 that the dispensational boundary line for today lies THERE. We don't need an Acts 29 to see when the New Man began. Up to Acts 28 we know that Paul never did anything that caused the Jews to worry that God would turn away from their program. But at Acts 28 there was a BREAK.
Perhaps this will illustrate:
Acts 13:26 Men and brethren, children of the stock of Abraham, and whosoever among you feareth God, to you is the word of this salvation sent.
And all throughout the book of Acts it is TO THAT GROUP that the word of salvation of sent...but in Acts 28 Israel drops out and now Paul would go to any ungodly GENTILE.
Acts 28:28 Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.
If you are opposed to Acts 28 dispensationalism or just happy with where you are at, I don't expect this to change you. BUT, if you are interested in more than just the traditional "party line" explanations then why not also consider:
www.bibleunderstanding.com
Grace and Peace,
Mike Holt
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