Today is

RIGHTDIVISION.COM DISCUSSION FORUM Login as administrator
 Subject: RE: Acts 15:11
 
Author: Joyce
Date:   7/22/2009 4:19 pm CDT
Hi Darryl,

I agree with the article you sent until the following statement where it reads, "His appearing to Saul the blasphemer on the road to Damascus was an interruption of the prophetic program. This is where and when God first dispensed grace under a new and unprophesied program, thus marking the beginning of the Dispensation of the Grace".

Paul was told to preach to the Gentiles the message of salvation. How was that God's grace dispensed for the first time? As I wrote in my first message Gentiles have always had the opportunity to accept God's gift of salvation. Our Lord said that God draws all men to Himself. "All men" includes Gentile. Paul wrote in Rom. 1 that those without the law, i.e. Gentiles, copuld be made righteous if they believed the message from nature of God's etenal nature. In short, Paul's going to the Gentiles was not a first in terms of god's grace shown to the Gentiles, and it was therefore not a interruption of anything.

Then you wrote, "It is true that Gentiles were never refused salvation......". If you agree that Gentiles were never refused salvation then you obviously do not agree with the statement that "This is where and when God first dispensed grace under a new and unprophesied program, thus marking the beginning of the Dispensation of the Grace". You can't have it both ways.

The rest of the sentence quoted above reads, "but when you say that God never favored Jews over Gentiles, you are not correct about that. Jews have always been favored over Gentiles. Gentiles were considered to be dogs, and swine. This can be easily verified by Christ's reaction to the Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24"

First you say that Gentiles have always had access to God's salvation, and then you say that God "Jews havealaways been favored over Gentiles, and you quoted Matt. 15:24.

There are no contradictions in the word of God so we must seek to understand this passage in Mattew so it does not contradict the other three passages that tell us that "God is no respecter of persons". That is to say, either God favored Jews or He was no respecter of persons, we can't have it both ways. So what is the answer to this seeming contradiction?

I believe the answer lies in the reason for Matthew's Gospel. Matthew's Gospel was written to present Christ as King of the Jews, (if you would like the Scriptural evidence for that statement, please see the paper on my web-site www.rightwordtruth.com and look for the paper on the kingdom of Heaven in the category of end times.

My point is that because Matthew presents Christ as the King of Israel of course, IN THAT CONTEXT, Jews are favored. In other words, we must consider the context if we are to avoid errors and contradictions.

Then you wrote, "Gentiles were able to achieve salvation, but only by becoming proselyte Jews; i.e., living as the Jews did, following the Law of Moses, becoming circumcised, eating what the Jews ate, and so on.". What can I say, please see my first message that quotes three passages that Gentiles were saved apart from becoming proselytes. Let's consider Gentiles before Christ who lived in China. They were certainly not going to become proselytes of Israel, a nation they probably never even heard of. But God in His mercy is "NO RESPECTER OF PERSONS" and according to Paul He allowed those Chineese the opprotunity to accpet His gift of salvation by acknowledging God's eternal nature.

Your next paragraph has to do with the mystery that was revealed to Paul. I won't quote it as it is too long, but I will say this. Like almost all mid-Acts believers you fail to recognize that there are two mysteries in Eph. 3, i.e. the mystery of Christ and the mystery that had been hid in God. Because that is such an important reason for our disagreement on this issue, I am going to post a message on those two mysteries of Eph. 3 in a new thread.

You have a great deal of difficulty with Rom. 1:19-20, "because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of Him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even His eternal power and Godhead...."

You wrote, "Are you saying here that if we simply believe in God, by observing the things in nature, that we become righteous? You could not be more wrong, if that is what you believe. You are misunderstanding what Paul is saying here. Another thing that Paul makes very clear in his teachings is that NONE are righteous. CHRIST must be our righteousness, or we have none. HE became sin for US, so that WE could become righteousness IN HIM. He is saying that God the Father will identify us with the cross, when we believe in Christ's finished work on the cross, instead of our sins or sinful nature".

Let's take this phrase by phrase.

1) "Are you saying here that if we simply believe in God, by observing the things in nature, that we become righteous?". Two things, a) this does not apply to people who have heard of Christ, we have heard of Christ, so no, I am not say9ng that this is true of us. b) Your answer that I must be wrong and misunderstanding Paul, but you give no Scriptural evidence. How then do you interpret what Paul wrote? How am I wrong, you're saying I'm wrong soes not make it so. share what you believe Paul was saying, and don't forget that "God is no respecter of persons and therefore the Chineese were just as free to accept God's salvation as anyone else.

2) Now to your comment about the Father identifying believers with the cross. Let's not make comments we cannot prove from Scripture. Consider for example Heb. 11 which tells us of all the saints before Chris. How was Noah saved? By beleiving that he needed to build an ark. How was Abraham saved, by believing that God would make of him a great nation (see Gen. 15). How was Sarah saved? By believing, finally, that she would bear a son.

In short, salvation is a gift of God given to those who believe the message He has for them. Certainly, after the death of Christ that message is about Christ. But we can't argue that other messages (as spoken of in Heb. 11) have also made various ones righteous IF THEY ACCEPTED AND ACTED UPON that message.

I will say only that the message of salvation is quite simple, but God's PLAN of salvation is not very well understood.

In Christ,
Reply To This Message

 Topics Author  Date      
  Acts 15:11   new  
dan p 7/20/2009 5:43 pm CDT
 RE: Acts 15:11   new  
Darryl 7/20/2009 9:40 pm CDT
 RE: Acts 15:11   new  
Joyce 7/21/2009 3:27 am CDT
 RE: Acts 15:11   new  
dan p 7/21/2009 3:06 pm CDT
 RE: Acts 15:11   new  
Darryl 7/21/2009 9:22 pm CDT
 RE: Acts 15:11   new  
Darryl 7/21/2009 9:17 pm CDT
 RE: Acts 15:11    
Joyce 7/22/2009 4:19 pm CDT
 RE: Acts 15:11   new  
Brent 9/7/2009 9:46 pm CDT
 Reply To This Message
 Your Name:  
 Your Email:  
 Subject:  
  Submission Validation Question: What is 74 + 57? *  
* indicates required field