Author: Brent
Date: 9/7/2009 9:46 pm CDT
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New guy here, just wanna give my input to clear things up between the 2 of you.
In Rom 1:19-... I agree with Darryl. This passage tells me that men (no matter where you live, like China) are without excuse for believing there is a God. It says that through nature we can see that there must be a God. THIS PASSAGE does not tell me that through this belief in God people can be saved.
Now as far as God favoring people. Did God favor people? Yes, he favored the Children of Abraham. He favored Isreal, as also shown by the fact that he lead Isreal to conquering many nations. Now, after saying that, we all agree he did not favor Isreal in terms of restricting Gentiles from being "saved" (i use quotes b/c the OT doesn't use the word saved, but justified or righteous). Both Israelites and Gentiles could be saved, there is no arguement there.
Now, as far as how Gentiles, say in China, were saved, i would have to lean more towards Darryl. In order to be saved, you had to have faith plus works. Now, given the fact that the OT was written to Israelites, it makes sense that Gentile salvation is scarcely refferenced. It's hard to make a clear sense of how Gentiles exactly were saved. So that question might have to be ignored for the time being.
Now, Joyce, you keep talking about how Noah was saved. But as we all agree he was in a unique dispensation. He was alive before the law and before steps toward ataining salvation were ever laid out. Same goes for Abram. Yes Gen 15 does tell us that he was made righteous when he believed God. But James 2:21 tells us that Abraham was justified by works. That is a tricky topic in itself. |
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