So, this verse haunts me and I can't figure out what it all means. It says "For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the Law who will be declared righteous"
That doesn't make any sense!!!
Romans 3 says the exact opposite "Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law" and Galatians 2:21 repeates this thought "for if righteousness could be gained through the law, Christ died for nothing."
Another verse I've come across is Luke 1:6 "Both of them were upright in the sight of God, observing all the lord's commandments and regulations blamelessly." This verse seems to correspond with Romans 2:13!
When it comes down to it, i 100% believe that following the law, today, get's you nothing. It's all about faith and God's grace. Back before Jesus died, it's a little fuzzy/controversial. I believe the law needed to be followed, but that was only 1 part of the salvation equation. Regardless, why does PAUL say what he does in Romans 2:13?
Thanks for ur help! |
